The literal translation is confusing, as the "vor" which gets translated to "before" is actually a prefix that is put at the end of the sentence due to it being a question. This way the litteral translation mis-interprets that and translates it as an individual word. It is actually belonging to the "haben" at the beginning of the question.
It comes from "[etwas] vorhaben" which you could translate to:
Having planned [something] beforehand/in advance for that point of time you're talking about (später = later).
jachjach on April 4th, 2017 at 07:32 UTC »
The literal translation is confusing, as the "vor" which gets translated to "before" is actually a prefix that is put at the end of the sentence due to it being a question. This way the litteral translation mis-interprets that and translates it as an individual word. It is actually belonging to the "haben" at the beginning of the question.
It comes from "[etwas] vorhaben" which you could translate to:
Having planned [something] beforehand/in advance for that point of time you're talking about (später = later).
thecherry94 on April 4th, 2017 at 08:00 UTC »
vorhaben means to have something planned.
in German, we split up words in some cases and the segments are distributed over the whole sentence.
This is the literal translation of every single word.
stubble on April 4th, 2017 at 11:29 UTC »
My time in Germany was mostly spent throwing verbs towards the end of a sentence in the vain hope they would land safely...